Karl_ wrote:Re: "no harm done": Deliberately exposing your child to a higher likelihood of harm can absolutely be reasonably considered abuse or neglect even if no harm ultimately occurs.
I agree it can be, but it certainly isn't in lots of situations. There is evidently a sliding scale of risk, with a point at which we must decide that risk crosses over from acceptable to unacceptable e.g. it's acceptable to drive a child around in a car, it's unacceptable to let them not wear a seatbelt while doing so.
Provided the vaccination rate amongst the general population is very high, the risk associated with a single child being unvaccinated is (from what I'm aware) very low. Vaccination is an unusual situation in which the risk is correlated with the number of people taking that risk, so I think policy should be based off the current averaged risk (which again from what I'm aware is low because vaccination rates are high).
Karl_ wrote:Re: "failure to prevent harm": In extremis, a poor diet actually would be abuse: malnutrition is considered evidence for neglect by e.g. social services and the NSPCC, etc. This is again reasonable.
I think my argument is broadly the same as above. The
in extremis demonstrates the sliding-scale reality - malnutrition is neglect, but a bit too much sugar in the diet isn't. In some way that's an expression of acceptable risk.
Karl_ wrote:Re: "...so as to better demonstrate the consistency of my reasoning...": I disagree that your reasoning is really consistent, because your hand-wave for why parents can't refuse emergency care isn't convincing. If the state can forcibly administer diazepam as an anticonvulsant during late-stage panencephalitis secondary to measles infection, why can't it forcibly administer methisoprinol for stage 1 panencephalitis, or paracetamol for fever management & salbutamol for bronchodilation at the symptomatic peak of uncomplicated measles infection, or retinol boosters to fortify the immune system at the onset of infection? What's the difference between any of that and a vaccine prior to infection?
I can't speak of these specific situations because I don't know what half of the medical specifics mean, but my general argument is that there is a clear distinction between treating a person who is unwell, and administering preventive medicine to a person who is in good health. The former situation is absolute, the latter is more about risk-management.
The reason I specified "emergency care" (which I don't think is a perfect categorisation but I hope the intention is clear) is because I think it's perfectly reasonable for a parent to decide whether their child needs a paracetamol for a headache, for example.
Overall the approach is "parents take responsibility for their children, and the state will only intervene when there is a substantial failure in that" and I don't think I've been inconsistent in applying that to both choice of education and choice of vaccination. I also think that's pretty much in line with how our society currently operates.